LCM and HCF

HEC HAT Test Preparation for Scholarship with Past Papers

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HEC HAT Test Preparation for Scholarship with the help of past papers in pdf form. Our whole website helps the aspirants of HEC HAT Test Scholarships rather those are indigenous, Overseas or Hungary scholarships. All students are advised to go to the following given link for all portions preparations.

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Analytical Reasoning Preparation
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Logical Reasoning

NTS Logical Reasoning Questions and MCQs with Answers

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Logical reasoning questions are asked in NTS test, GAT General test, HAT test and NAT test. The purpose of logical reasoning questions is to test the way of thinking of the students. Students master their logical skills to solve complex problems and to guess what will happen next. Logical reasoning involves data and facts to draw conclusions based on the arguments given in the question.

Logical reasoning Questions include:

  • Identifying explanations
  • Recognizing the parts of an argument and their relationships
  • Reasoning by analogy
  • Drawing well-supported conclusions
  • Identifying flaws in arguments

Question No – 1

Mr. khawar has never received a violation from the Federal Aviation Administration during his 16-year flying career. Khawar must be a great pilot.

Which of the following can be said about the reasoning above?

(A) The definitions of the terms create ambiguity.

(B) The argument uses circular reasoning.

(C) The argument works by analogy.

(D) The argument is built upon hidden assumptions.

(E) This is an example of an argument that is directed against the source of the claim rather than the claim itself.

Solution:

Option Analysis:

  • (A) The definitions of the terms create ambiguity.
    There is no ambiguity in the terms used here.
  • (B) The argument uses circular reasoning.
    Circular reasoning would mean the conclusion is repeated or assumed in the premises, which isn’t the case here.
  • (C) The argument works by analogy.
    There’s no analogy being made between two similar cases.
  • (D) The argument is built upon hidden assumptions.
    Correct. The hidden assumption here is that no violations equate to being a “great pilot,” which may not account for all aspects of piloting skill.
  • (E) This is an example of an argument that is directed against the source of the claim rather than the claim itself.
    This is incorrect as the statement doesn’t attack the source but instead makes an assumption about Khawar’s skills based on his record.

Answer: (D)

Question No – 2

Although most of the fastest growing jobs in today’s economy will require a college degree, many of the new jobs being created-from home health aide to desktop publisher-require knowledge other than that gained from earning a degree. For workers in those jobs, good basic skills in reading, communigreion, and mathematics play an important role in getting a job and developing a career.

From the information given above it can be validly concluded that, in today’s economy,

(A) Skills in reading, communigreion, and mathematics play an important role in developing a career as a desktop publisher

(B) The majority of the new jobs being created require knowledge other than that gained from earning a college degree

(C) A job as a home health aide will rely more on communigreion skills than on basic skills in reading and mathematics

(D) If a job is one of the fastest growing jobs, it will require a college degree

(E) Desktop publisher jobs and home health aide jobs are not among the fastest growing jobs

Solution:

Option Analysis:

  • (A) Skills in reading, communication, and mathematics play an important role in developing a career as a desktop publisher.
    Correct. The passage specifies that jobs like desktop publisher require basic skills, so this is a valid conclusion.
  • (B) The majority of the new jobs being created require knowledge other than that gained from earning a college degree.
    The passage does not state that the majority of all new jobs are like this, just “many.”
  • (C) A job as a home health aide will rely more on communication skills than on basic skills in reading and mathematics.
    There’s no basis in the passage to conclude this level of specificity about skill emphasis.
  • (D) If a job is one of the fastest-growing jobs, it will require a college degree.
    This would be overgeneralizing; the passage states “most,” not “all,” of the fastest-growing jobs require a degree.
  • (E) Desktop publisher jobs and home health aide jobs are not among the fastest-growing jobs.
    The passage doesn’t state that these jobs aren’t among the fastest-growing, only that they are part of a broader group of new jobs created without degree requirements.

Answer: (A) 

 

Fraction and Decimal

Quantitative Reasoning Fractions and Decimals

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Introduction to Fraction and Decimal

Note: Before solving MCQs students much go through the following concepts.

Quantitative Reasoning (Fractions and Decimals)

When a whole is divided into “n” equal parts, each part is called one nth of the whole, written 1/n.

For example, if a cake is cut (divided) into 4 equal slices, each slice is one fourth (1/4) of the cake;

  • A day is divided into 24 equal hours,
  • So an hour is one twenty-fourth (1/24) of a day;
  • And an inch is one twelfth of a foot. (1/12)

 

Watch Solution on YouTube

Fraction:

Numbers such as 5/4, 8/8 and 3/12 in which one integer is written over a second integer, are called fractions. The center line is called the fraction bar. The number above the bar is called numerator, and the number below the bar is called the denominator.

  • A fraction, such as 3/20 in which the numerator is less than the denominator, is called proper fraction. Its value is less than 1.
  • A fraction, such as 20/12 in which the numerator is more than the denominator, is called an improper fraction. Its value is greater than 1.
  • A fraction, such as 4/4 in which the numerator and denominator are the same, is also improper, but it is equal to 1.

It is useful to think of the fraction bar as a symbol for division. If two fruit cakes are divided equally among seven people, each person gets 2/7 of a cake. If you actually divide 2 by 7, you get that 2/7 = 0.285

Decimals:

1. A decimal, which is a number with a decimal point(.), is actually a fraction, the denominator of which is understood to be 10 or some power of 10.

  • The number of digits, or places, after a decimal point determines which power of 10 the denominator is. If there is one digit, the denominator is understood to be 10; if there are two digits, the denominator is understood to be 100, etc.

Example: 0.7 = 7/10; 0.37 = 37/100

  • Every fraction, proper or improper, can be expressed in decimal from (or as a whole number) by dividing the numerator by the denominator.

5/9 = 0.55        3/4 = 0.75

2. The addition of zeros after a decimal point does not change the value of the decimal. The zeros may be removed without changing the value of the decimal.

Example: .3 = .30 = .300, and vice versa: .300 = .30 = .3.

3. Since a decimal point is understood to exist after any whole number, the addition of any number of zeros after such a decimal point does not change the value of the number.

Example: 8 = 8.0 = 8.00 = 8.000.

Comparing Fractions:

In this type of question, you may have to compare two or more fractions and determine which is larger, or smaller.

There are two methods of comparing fractions:

  1. Convert them to decimals (by dividing),
  2. Cross-multiply.

For example, to compare 1/3 and 3/8 we have two choices.

Write 1/3 = 0.33….. And 3/8 = 0.375 since .375 > .333, then 3/8 > 1/3.

Cross-multiply; 1/3  X 3/8. Since 3 × 3 > 8 ×1, then 3/8 > 1/3.

8 < 9            3/8 > 1/3 Ans.

Tip:

If the difference between numerator and denominator of one fraction is the same as the difference between the numerator and denominator of the other fraction, then the fraction with greater numerator is greater.

Example:

In case of 2-3 6-7 Since 6 is greater than 2 the difference between 2 and 3 is “1” same as difference between 6 and 7. 6 50 is greater fraction. 7

Antonyms

Verbal Reasoning Synonyms and Antonyms

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Verbal Reasoning Synonyms and Antonyms. In verbal reasoning portion mainly the synonyms and antonyms are asked. This is  not a simple vocabulary test instead it tests the logical analysis of the students. Vocabulary involves the critical understanding of language and words usage.

Directions: Choose the best antonym for the following words.

1) CAUTIOUS

a. elusive

b. playful

c. circumspect

d. foolhardy

e. jovial

Answer: D. foolhardy

2) SURREPTITIOUS

a. venerable

b. tricky

c. clandestine

d. hazy

e. artless

Answer: E. artless

3) TURBID

a. transparent

b. bemused

c. muddled

d. auspicious

e. dark

Answer: A. transparent

4) JOVIAL

a. lewd

b. heterogeneous

c. depraved

d. energetic

e. melancholy

Answer: E. melancholy

5) INGENUOUS

a. shady

b. bucolic

c. candid

d. frank

e. honest

Answer: A. shady

6) ASCETIC

a. lachrymose

b. erudite

c. acclaimed

d. prodigal

e. disciplined

Answer: D. prodigal

7) CAPRICIOUS

a. steadfast

b. pedantic

c. idiosyncratic

d. demure

e. capable

Answer: A. steadfast

8) GERMANE

a. relevant

b. bias

c. tangential

d. alien

e. dispassionate

Answer: C. tangential

9) IMPASSIVE

a. emotional

b. respectful

c. solid

d. hackney

e. fractious

Answer: A. emotional

10) INIMICAL

a. affable

b. benevolent

c. amiable

d. hostile

e. garrulous

Answer: C. amiable

11) INCHOATE

a. patriarchal

b. young

c. puerile

d. inveterate

e. immature

Answer: D. inveterate

12) PERFUNCTORY

a. urbane

b. moody

c. nebulous

d. conscious

e. spontaneous

Answer: D. conscious

13) ETERNAL

a. concrete

b. compendious

c. patient

d. piqued

e. ephemeral

Answer: E. ephemeral

14) APPREHENSIVE

a. disinterested

b. nervous

c. anxious

d. lethargic

e. insouciant

Answer: E. insouciant

15) DESPONDENT

a. reproachful

b. exhausted

c. unhappy

d. prescient

e. hopeful

Answer: E. hopeful

16) MAGNANIMOUS

a. generous

b. negligentc.

c. dissolute

d. magnetic

e. malignant

Answer: E. malignant

17) INCONGRUOUS

a. misaligned

b. straight

c. parallel

d. fraternal

e. discordant

Answer: C. parallel

18) MERCURIAL

a. erratic

b. imperturbable

c. tranquil

d. stoic

e. volatile

Answer: C. tranquil

19) MENDACIOUS

a. perilous

b. perfunctory

c. veracious

d. apathetic

e. perfidious

Answer: C. veracious

20) NOXIOUS

a. frugal

b. pungent

c. deleterious

d. arid

e. healthy

Answer: E. healthy

21) DEMURE

a. designed

b. respected

c. abstruse

d. reserved

e. brazen

Answer: E. brazen

22) ABSTRUSE

a. problematic

b. clear

c. recondite

d. turbid

e. cloudy

Answer: B. clear

23) ANALOGOUS

a. dissimilar

b. matching

c. positioned

d. straight

e. equivalent

Answer: A. dissimilar

24) MAWKISH

a. derisive

b. progressive

c. threatening

d. stoic

e. constant

Answer: A. derisive

25) RANCOR

a. hatred

b. admiration

c. credence

d. penchant

e. knowledge

Answer: B. admiration

Analogies

What is Analogy? Types of Analogies with Examples

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What is an analogy?

An analogy is a comparison of relationship that exist in two different pair of things, objects or ideas, to show how two things are similar for explanation or clarification. Although the things compared are physically different, the analogy identifies how they are figuratively similar.

Following are the types of analogies
  1. Part to Whole
  2. Definition
  3. Defining Characteristics
  4. Class and Member
  5. Antonyms
  6. Antonym Variants
  7. Synonyms
  8. Synonym Variants
  9. Degree of Intensity
  10. Function
  11. Manner
  12. A is Sign of B
  13. Worker and Article Created
  14. Worker and Tool
  15. Worker and Workplace
  16. Tool and Its Action
  17. Cause and Effect
  18. Sex
  19. Age
  20. Symbol and Quality it represents
1. Part to Whole:
  • PAGE: BOOK

A page is part of a book.

  • GILL: FISH

Gills are part of a fish.

  • SHARD: POTTERY

A shard is a fragment of pottery.

2. Definition:
  • PATRON: SUPPORT

A patron by definition supports.

  • REFUGE: SHELTER

A refuge (place of asylum) by definition shelters.

  • HAGGLER: BARGAIN

A haggler, a person who argues over prices by definition bargains

3. Defining Characteristics:
  • NEST: BIRD

A nest is defined as a home for birds.

  • TIGER: CARNIVOROUS

A tiger is defined as a carnivorous or meat-eating animal.

  • APIARY: BEE

An apiary is defined as a home for bees,

4. Class and Member:
  • SQUIRREL: RODENT

Squirrel is an example of rodent.

  • BALLAD: SONG

Ballad is a specific kind of song.

  • SONNET: POEM

A sonnet is a specific kind of poem

5. Antonyms:

Antonyms are words that are opposite in meaning. Both words belong to the same part of speech.

  • VIRTUE: VICE

Virtue is the opposite of vice.

  • WAX: WANE

Wax, to grow larger, and wane, to dwindle, are opposites.

  • ANARCHY: ORDER

Anarchy is the opposite of order

6. Antonym Variants:

In an Antonym Variant, the words are not strictly antonyms; their meanings, however, are opposed. Take the adjective “ruthless”. A strict antonyms for the adjective ruthless would be the adjective compassionate. But an Antonym Variant analogy has the noun compassion. It looks like this:

  • RUTHLESS: COMPASSION

Ruthless means lacking in compassion.

  • INEXACT: ACCURACY

Inexact means lacking in accuracy.

  • NERVOUS: POISE

Nervous means lacking in poise.

7. Synonyms:

Synonyms are words that have the same meaning. Both words belong to the same part of speech.

  • INDUSTRIOUS: HARDWORKING

Industrious means hard working.

  • MUDDY: UNCLEAR

Muddy means unclear.

  • GRANDIOSE: MAGNIFICENT

Grandiose means magnificent.

8. Synonym Variants:

In a Synonyms Variant, the words are not strictly synonyms; their meanings, however, are similar. Take the adjective “dauntless”. A strict synonym for the adjective dauntless would be the adjective courageous but a Synonym Variant analogy has the noun courage. It looks like this:

  • DAUNTLESS: COURAGE

Someone dauntless possess courage.

  • WILLFUL: UNRULINESS

Willful means exhibiting unruliness.

  • VERBOSE: WORDINESS

Someone verbose is wordy; he or she exhibits wordiness.

9. Degree of Intensity:
  • WARM: HOT

Warm is less extreme than hot.

  • TOSS: HURL

Toss is less extreme than hurl

  • FLURRY: BLIZZARD

A flurry or shower of snow is less extreme than a blizzard

10. Function:
  • PEN: WRITE

The function of pen is to write.

  • ASYLUM: REFUGE

The function of asylum is to provide refuge or protection.

  • KNIFE: CUT

The function of knife is to cut.

11. Manner:
  • SIMPER: SMILE

Simper is to smile in a coy and silly way.

  • MUMBLE: SPEAK

To mumble is to speak indistinctly.

  • STRAINED: WIT

Wit that is strained is forced in manner.

12. A is Sign of B:
  • YAWN: BOREDOM

Yawn is a sign of boredom.

  • HUG: AFFECTION

A hug is sign of affection.

  • BLUSH: DISCOMFITURE

A blush signifies discomfiture or embarrassment.

13. Worker and Article Created:
  • POET: LYRIC

A poet creates a lyric.

  • ARCHITECT: BLUEPRINT

An architect designs a blueprint.

  • MASON: WALL

A mason builds a wall.

14. Worker and Tool:
  • SCALPEL: SURGEON

A surgeon uses a scalpel.

  • PAINTER: BRUSH

A painter uses a brush.

  • CARPENTER: SAW

A carpenter uses a saw.

15. Worker and Workplace:
  • PROFESSOR: CLASSROOM

A professor works in classroom.

  • FARMER: FIELD

A farmer works in field.

  • SCULPTOR: ATELIER

A sculptor works in an atelier or studio.

16. Tool and Its Action:
  • SAW: CUT

A saw is a tool used to cut.

  • DRILL: BORE

A drill is a tool used to bore holes.

  • CROWBAR: PRY

A crowbar is a tool used to pry things apart.

17. Cause and Effect:
  • RACE: FATIGUE

A race causes fatigue

  • SOPORIFIC: SLEEPINESS

A soporific (sleep-including medicine or drug) causes sleepiness.

18. Sex:
  • DOE: STAG

A doe is a female deer; a stag, a male deer.

  • FILLY: HORSE

A Filly is a female (horse)

A horse is a male (horse)

19. Age:
  • BOY: MAN

A boy is a young man.

  • COLT: STALLION

A colt is a young stallion.

20. Symbol and Quality it represents:
  1. DOVE: PEACE

A dove is the symbol of peace.

  1. FOX: CUNNING

A fox is the symbol of cunning

Analogies

Verbal Reasoning Analogy MCQs

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Verbal Reasoning Analogy MCQs: Analogies are type of vocabulary MCQs, but they require the reasoning skill to solve the question. Analogies ask to find the relationship between the given pair of words. Following are the given pair of words, find the same relationship in these Pair of words that exist in the given pair of word.

1. MASON: STONE

a. Photograph: camera

b. Teacher: chalk

c. Soldier: gun

d. Carpenter: wood

e. Sharp: sharpen

Answer: d. Carpenter: wood

2. INDOLENT: ASSIDUOUS

a. Powerful: omnipotent

b. Abstemious: overindulgent

c. Rife: vogue

d. Normal: mean

e. Hostility: intention

Answer: b. Abstemious: overindulgent

3. KITTEN: CAT

a. Bird: flock

b. Duck: goose

c. Mare: horse

d. Puppy: dog

e. Stanza: line

Answer: d. Puppy: dog

4. SWAN: CYGNET

a. Lion: pride

b. Bevy: beauties

c. Goose: gosling

d. Swan: genus

e. Oven: bake

Answer: c. Goose: gosling

5. WALK: STUMBLE

a. Trot: race

b. Look: ogle

c. Hear: ignore

d. Speak: stammer

e. Spotless: clean

Answer: d. Speak: stammer

6. CLUB: GOLF

a. Type: book

b. Ball: soccer

c. Racket: tennis

d. Glove: baseball

e. West: California

Answer: c. Racket: tennis

7. ADULTERATE: PURITY

a. Ascertain: validity

b. Tolerated: diversity

c. Modify: essence

d. Enervate: vigor

e. Epic: comic

Answer: d. Enervate: vigor

8. SHIVER: COLD

a. Relax: fatigue

b. Stifle: sneeze

c. Tickle: scratch

d. Tremble: fear

e. Studio: sculptor

Answer: d. Tremble: fear

9. GUILE: INGENUOUS

a. Appetite: voracious

b. Chivalry: natural

c. Prudence: demanding

d. Courage: timorous

e. Cement: mason

Answer: d. Courage: timorous

10. COERCE: COAX

a. Avenge: reform

b. Suggest: demand

c. Declaim: argue

d. Shove: nudge

e. Pious: gullible

Answer: d. Shove: nudge

11. REJUVENATE: YOUTH

a. Recuperate: disease

b. Reelect: provident

c. Reiterate: item

d. Reimburse: money

e. Failed: dejection

Answer: d. Reimburse: money

12. IMITATION: INDIVIDUALITY

a. Veneration: defence

b. Determination: success

c. Recklessness: courage

d. Debauchery: morality

e. Success: emotion

Answer: d. Debauchery: morality

13. EMANCIPATE: SLAVERY

a. Erase: document

b. Inveigle: agreement

c. Exonerate: blame

d. Ratify: contract

e. Venison: dear

Answer: c. Exonerate: blame

14. ENIGMATIC: CLEAR

a. Copious: scarce

b. Academic: masterful

c. Lucrative: monetary

d. Slanderous: illegal

e. Amoral: ethics

Answer: a. Copious: scarce

15. ETERNAL: DURATION

a. Temporary: time

b. Weak: control

c. Harmonious: music

d. Omnipotent: power

e. Conduct: behaviour

Answer: d. Omnipotent: power

16. SUBMISSIVE: DEFIANCE

a. Agile: alertness

b. Courageous: fear

c. Doubtful: indecision

d. Confident: poise

e. Theater: dramatist

Answer: b. Courageous: fear

17. ENERVATE: STRENGTH

a. Encourage: motivation

b. Conserve: excitement

c. Persecute: indulgence

d. Incarcerate: freedom

e. Disease: germ

Answer: d. Incarcerate: freedom

18. PROFLIGATE: MORAL

a. Crook: fearful

b. Carpenter: patient

c. Recklessness: courage

d. Miser: generous

e. Crab: crustacean

Answer: d. Miser: generous

19. APOSTATE: RELIGION

a. Potentate: kingdom

b. Traitor: country

c. Bureaucrat: government

d. Jailer: law

e. Teacher: education

Answer: b. Traitor: country

20. FOX: CUNNING

a. Hyena: amusing

b. Dog: playful

c. Vixen: cute

d. Beaver: industrious

e. Colt: sturdy

Answer: d. Beaver: industrious

Analytical Reasoning

Analytical Reasoning MCQs

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The questions in this section include analytical reasoning MCQs. These questions need simple analysis of the given scenario based data. This question is based on a statement, set of conditions, and MCQs.  Analytical Reasoning questions are the compulsory part of the GAT General Test, GAT Subject Test, HAT Test and NAT Test. Almost all types of NTS tests includes analytical reasoning MCQs. These MCQs are equally helpful in GAT, HAT and NAT tests.

Question No-1

Sohrab Khan always feed his six favorite birds kept in cage 1 through 6. Sohrab Khan is superstitious and always follows these procedures when feeding: As long as there is no conflict with the procedure, a weak bird is always feed before the healthy bird. In every instance, the following procedures always take precedence:

  1. He feed the bird in Cage-6 before feeding the bird in Cage-1 and Cage-5.
  2. He feed the bird in Cage-2 after feeding the bird in Cage-1 and Cage 4.
  3. He never feed the bird in Cage-4 immediately before or immediately after feeding the bird in Cage-3.

Q-1. If bird in Cage-4 is weak, which of the following can be a valid sequence of feeding?

Option a. 4-1-3-2-6-5

Option b. 4-3-2-6-1-5

Option c. 4-6-5-1-3-2

Option d. 6-1-5-4-3-2

Option e. 6-4-2-1-5-3

Q-2. If birds in Cage-2 and Cage- 5 are weak, which of the following must be true?

Option a. The 4th bird feed is in Cage-1

Option b. The 2nd bird feed is in Cage-6

Option c. The 3rd bird feed is in Cage-4

Option d. The 1st bird feed is in Cage-5

Option e. The 6th bird feed is in Cage-3

Q-3. If birds in Cage-2 and Cage-4 are weak and birds in Cages-1-2-5 and 6 are healthy, which of the following is an acceptable order to feed the birds.

Option a. 4-2-6-3-1-5

Option b. 4-6-1-5-2-3

Option c. 4-6-1-2-5-3

Option d. 6-4-1-2-3-5

Option e. 6-4-2-5-1-4

Q-4. If the only birds in Cage 1-2-4- and 6 are healthy, which of the following is valid order of feeding?

Option a. 3-5-6-4-1-2

Option b. 3-6-5-4-1-2

Option c. 6-3-1-5-4-2

Option d. 6-5-1-3-2-4

Option e. 6-5-1-4-2-3

Answer Key:

  1. c
  2. e
  3. c
  4. b
Watch Solution on YouTube
Explanation of Each Question

Question- 1

Answer: (C). 4-6-5-1-3-2

Why are the other options wrong?

  1. Option a. 4-1-3-2-6-5: This violates Rule 1 because Cage-6 is fed after both Cage-1 and Cage-5.
  2. Option b. 4-3-2-6-1-5: This violates Rule 3 because Cage-4 is fed immediately before Cage-3.
  3. Option d. 6-1-5-4-3-2: This violates Rule 1, as Cage-6 is fed, but Cage-1 and Cage-5 are fed immediately after it.
  4. Option e. 6-4-2-1-5-3: This violates Rule 2, as Cage-2 is fed before Cage-1, which breaks the rule.

Explanation: Why option C is correct?

  1. Cage-4 bird is weak, so it must be fed early. Here it is fed first.
  2. According to Rule 1, Cage-6 must be fed before Cage-1 and Cage-5, and in this option, Cage-6 is fed second.
  3. Cage-2 is fed after Cage-1 and Cage-4, which follows Rule 2.
  4. Rule 3 is also followed because Cage-4 and Cage-3 are not fed one after the other (they are separated by other birds).
  5. Hence, Option c is correct

Question- 2

Answer: (E). The 6th bird fed is in Cage-3

Why are the other options wrong?

  1. Option a. The 4th bird fed is in Cage-1: This is not necessarily true, as Cage-1 could be fed earlier or later.
  2. Option b. The 2nd bird fed is in Cage-6: There is no rule that forces Cage-6 to always be second.
  3. Option c. The 3rd bird fed is in Cage-4: Cage-4 is not necessarily the 3rd; it could be fed at any earlier position.
  4. Option d. The 1st bird fed is in Cage-5: This is incorrect because Cage-6 must be fed before Cage-5 according to Rule 1.

Explanation: Why option E is correct?

  1. If Cage-2 and Cage-5 birds are weak, they should be fed earlier, as long as it doesn’t conflict with the rules.
  2. According to the rules, Cage-3 is the only bird left to be fed last after all the rules are followed, so Cage-3 must be the 6th bird to be fed.

Question- 3

Answer: (C). 4-6-1-2-5-3

Why are the other options wrong?

  1. Option a. 4-2-6-3-1-5: Cage-2 is fed before Cage-1, which violates Rule 2.
  2. Option b. 4-6-1-5-2-3: This violates Rule 2, as Cage-2 must be fed before Cage-5.
  3. Option d. 6-4-1-2-3-5: This violates Rule 3 because Cage-4 and Cage-3 are fed consecutively.

Option e. 6-4-2-5-1-4: This is invalid because Cage-4 is fed twice, which is not possible.

Explanation: Why option C is correct?

  1. Cage-4 and Cage-2 are weak, so they should be fed early.
  2. According to Rule 1, Cage-6 must be fed before Cage-1 and Cage-5. In this sequence, Cage-6 is fed second.
  3. According to Rule 2, Cage-2 is fed after Cage-1 and Cage-4, which is satisfied here.
  4. Rule 3 is also followed because Cage-4 and Cage-3 are not fed immediately one after the other.

Question- 4

Answer: (B). 3-6-5-4-1-2

Why are the other options wrong?

  1. Option a. 3-5-6-4-1-2: This violates Rule 1 because Cage-6 is fed after Cage-5.
  2. Option c. 6-3-1-5-4-2: This violates Rule 3 because Cage-4 and Cage-3 are fed consecutively.
  3. Option d. 6-5-1-3-2-4: This violates Rule 3 because Cage-4 and Cage-3 are fed consecutively.
  4. Option e. 6-5-1-4-2-3: This violates Rule 3 because Cage-4 and Cage-3 are fed consecutively.

Explanation: Why option B is correct?

  1. According to Rule 1, Cage-6 must be fed before Cage-1 and Cage-5, which is followed here.
  2. According to Rule 2, Cage-2 is fed after Cage-1 and Cage-4, which is also followed here.
  3. Rule 3 is also followed because Cage-4 and Cage-3 are not fed immediately one after the other
Analytical Reasoning

Analytical Reasoning Questions

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Analytical Reasoning Questions are the most essential parts of GAT, NAT, HAT, SSC and CGL exam. In Analytical Reasoning Questions examiner ask questions to judge the candidate’s ability to analyze, visualize, and their creativity. The below given analytical reasoning question provide students online practice for the GAT general test, HAT test, NAT test and USAT test.

Question No-2

Analytical Reasoning Question

In a Camel Race held in Dubai, camels have to reach the winning line in order to win the competition. Six camels, camel 1, camel 2, camel 3, camel 4, camel 5, and camel 6, have to reach a winning line in a given time, such that:

  1. Camel-1 finishes race neither 1st nor last.
  2. Camel-2 finishes race ahead of both Camel-3 and Camel-4.
  3. Camel-5 finishes race in third place.

Q-1: Which of the following could be the finishing order of 6 camels, from first to last?

     a. C1-C6-C5-C2-C3-C4

     b. C6-C3-C5-C2-C1-C4

     c. C2-C6-C5-C3-C4-C1

     d. C2-C5-C3-C4-C1-C6

     e. C2-C6-C5-C1-C4-C3

Q-2:  All of the following could be a complete and accurate list of finishing order of the 6 camels EXCEPT.

     a. C2-C1-C5-C6-C3-C4

     b. C2-C4-C5-C3-C1-C6

     c. C6-C2-C5-C1-C3-C4

     d. C2-C6-C5-C1-C4-C3

     e. C6-C1-C5-C4-C3-C2

Q-3:  Which of the following is a complete and accurate list of camels which could finish first?

a. C2-C3-C4-C6

b. C2-C5

c. C2-C6

d. C2-C3-C4

e. C2-C3-C6

Q-4:  Which of the following could finish either first or last?

     a. C5

     b. C2

     c. C3

     d. C4

     e. C6

Q-5:  If Camel-2 does not finish first, then which of the following must be false?

     a. C3 & C5 finish ahead of C4

     b. C5 & C6 finish ahead of C4

     c. C3 finishes first

     d. C2 finishes last

     e. C3 & C4 finishes ahead of C5

Answer Key:

  1. e
  2. e
  3. c
  4. e
  5. e
Watch Solution on YouTube
Explanation of Each Question

Question 1:

Which of the following could be the finishing order of 6 camels, from first to last?

Correct Answer: (E) C2-C6-C5-C1-C4-C3

Explanation:

  1. Camel-5 must finish third, so it must be in the third position.
  2. Camel-2 must finish ahead of both Camel-3 and Camel-4, which it does here.
  3. Camel-1 is not in first or last, satisfying Rule 1.
  4. All conditions are met in option e, making it correct.

Why are the other options incorrect?

  1. C1-C6-C5-C2-C3-C4: Camel-1 finishes first, which violates Rule 1.
  2. C6-C3-C5-C2-C1-C4: Camel-2 finishes after Camel-3, violating Rule 2.
  3. C2-C6-C5-C3-C4-C1: Camel-2 finishes ahead of Camel-3 and Camel-4, but Camel-1 is in the last place, violating Rule 1.
  4. C2-C5-C3-C4-C1-C6: Camel-5 is not in the third position, which violates Rule 3.

Question 2:

All of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the finishing order of the 6 camels EXCEPT.

Correct Answer: (E) C6-C1-C5-C4-C3-C2

Explanation:

In this order, Camel-2 finishes last, which violates Rule 2 since Camel-2 must finish ahead of Camel-3 and Camel-4.

This makes option e the correct answer for this question because it is the only invalid order.

Why the other options are correct?

  1. C2-C1-C5-C6-C3-C4: This satisfies all the rules.
  2. C2-C4-C5-C3-C1-C6: All the rules are followed here.
  3. C6-C2-C5-C1-C3-C4: No rule is violated.
  4. C2-C6-C5-C1-C4-C3: This order is valid.

Question 3:

Which of the following is a complete and accurate list of camels that could finish first?

Correct Answer: (C) C2-C6

Explanation:

  1. Camel-2 can finish first, as long as it finishes ahead of Camel-3 and Camel-4.
  2. Camel-6 can also finish first because there are no restrictions preventing it from being in the first position.
  3. These two camels (C2 and C6) are the only ones that can finish first without breaking any rules, making c the correct answer.

Why are the other options incorrect?

  1. C2-C3-C4-C6: Camel-3 and Camel-4 cannot finish ahead of Camel-2, violating Rule 2.
  2. C2-C5: Camel-5 must finish third, so it cannot finish first.
  3. C2-C3-C4: Camel-3 and Camel-4 cannot finish ahead of Camel-2.
  4. C2-C3-C6: Camel-3 cannot finish ahead of Camel-2.

Question 4:

Which of the following could finish either first or last?

Correct Answer: (E) C6

Explanation:

  1. Camel-6 can finish first, as there are no restrictions on its position.
  2. Camel-6 can also finish last, as long as Camel-2 finishes ahead of Camel-3 and Camel-4.
  3. Camel-6 is the only camel that can be placed both first and last, making e the correct answer.

Why are the other options incorrect?

  1. C5: Camel-5 must always finish third.
  2. C2: Camel-2 must finish ahead of Camel-3 and Camel-4, so it cannot finish last.
  3. C3: Camel-3 cannot finish first, as it must be behind Camel-2.
  4. C4: Camel-4 cannot finish first, as it must be behind Camel-2.

Question 5:

If Camel-2 does not finish first, then which of the following must be false?

Correct Answer: (E) C3 & C4 finish ahead of C5

Explanation:

  1. If Camel-2 does not finish first, it still must finish ahead of both Camel-3 and Camel-4 according to Rule 2.
  2. Therefore, Camel-3 and Camel-4 cannot both finish ahead of Camel-5, since Camel-5 must finish in the third position.
  3. Thus, e is the correct answer because it contradicts the rules.

Why are the other options incorrect?

  1. C3 & C5 finish ahead of C4: This could still be true, as Camel-5 finishes third and Camel-3 could finish ahead of Camel-4.
  2. C5 & C6 finish ahead of C4: This could be true, as long as Camel-2 finishes ahead of Camel-4.
  3. C3 finishes first: This could be true if Camel-2 does not finish first.
  4. C2 finishes last: This could be false, but it does not necessarily have to be false if Camel-2 is not first.
Analytical Reasoning

GAT General Analytical Reasoning Questions

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GAT general analytical reasoning questions portion evaluates how efficiently students can reason to solve logical arrangement based on given three to five sets of conditions in such a short span of time. If a student can accurately extract the information out of the analytical reason question statement and conditions then it becomes very easier to solve. Students can also make diagrams and sketches to organize information in better way to solve the puzzle type analytical reasoning questions.

How to Solve GAT General Analytical Reasoning Questions

Key Points for Achieving a Target Score in GAT Analytical Reasoning Questions

  1. Carefully Read Group Information and Draw Accurate Sketches

Pay attention to the group information and ensure no details are missed while drawing your sketch. An accurate sketch is crucial for solving questions quickly and correctly.

  1. Rely on the Sketch to Save Time

After completing the sketch, avoid returning to the group information. Focus on analyzing the sketch to manage the limited exam time efficiently.

  1. Master Sketch Techniques during Preparation

Spend extra time learning and practicing sketching techniques during preparation. Expertise in making accurate sketches is key to excelling in the analytical reasoning section.

  1. Stay Calm during Practice

Don’t panic if solving questions takes time during practice. With practice, your brain will become accustomed to handling new question types quickly.

  1. Follow the 20-Day Study Plan

Completing the 20-day study plan outlined in the course will give you mastery over the GAT Analytical Reasoning section. This preparation will enable you to achieve a 99th percentile score.

Question No-3

A certain secure computer lab uses only the letters K, L, M, N, and O as their computer codes. Words in the computer lab’s code are written from left to right. Computer lab’s code words are only those words that confirm to the following conditions:

  1. The minimum length of a computer lab’s code word is two letters, not necessarily different from each other.
  2. K cannot be the first in a word.
  3. L must occur more than once in a word.
  4. M cannot be the last letter in the word and nor next to the last letter.
  5. N must occur in a word if K occurs in the word.
  6. O cannot be the last letter in a word unless L occurs in the word.

Q-1: Which of the following letters could be placed after “O” in L-O to form a computer lab’s code word exactly 3 letters long.

a. K

b. O

c. M

d. N

e. L

Q-2: If the only kinds of letters that are available are K-L and M, then the total number of different computer lab’s code words, each exactly two letters long, that it is possible to make is?

a. 1

b. 3

c. 6

d. 9

e. 12

 Q-3: Which of the following is an acceptable computer lab’s code?

a. K-L-L-M

b. L-O-M-L

c. O-N-K-M

d. N-M-K-O

e. M-L-L-O

Q-4: What are the total number of different computer lab’s code words exactly three identical letters long that it is possible to make?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

e. 5

 Q-5: The computer lab’s code word M-M-L-L-O-K-N can be turned into another computer lab’s code word by carrying out any one of the following changes EXCEPT:

a. Replacing every L with N

b. Replacing 1st M with O

c. Moving the 2nd L to the immediate left of K

d. Moving O to the immediate right of N

e. Replacing the N with an O

Q-6: Which one of the following is not a computer lab’s code word but could be turned into one by changing the order of the letters within the word?

a. K-L-M-N-O

b. L-L-L-K-N

c. M-K-N-O-N

d. N-K-L-M-L

e. O-M-M-L-L

Q-7: Which of the following could be turned into a computer lab’s code word by replacing the “X” with the letter used in the computer lab’s code.

a. M-K-X-N-O

b. M-X-K-M-N

c. X-M-M-K-O

d. X-M-O-L-K

e. X-O-K-L-L

 Answer Key:

  1. A
  2. A
  3. E
  4. B
  5. E
  6. D
  7. E
Watch Solution on YouTube
Explanation of Each Question

Question 1:

Which of the following letters could be placed after “O” in L-O to form a computer lab’s code word exactly 3 letters long?

Correct Answer: A (K)

Explanation:

  1. Rule 5 states that O cannot be the last letter unless L is in the word, and since L already appears in “L-O”, O can be followed by K.
  2. K can follow O here, and it satisfies all the rules.

Why are the other options incorrect?

  1. O: Cannot repeat O as the last letter (Rule 5).
  2. M: M cannot be the second-to-last letter (Rule 3).
  3. N: While possible, K is the correct answer based on the context.
  4. L: L is already in the word, so repeating it here does not make the word incorrect, but K is the better option.

Question 2:

If the only kinds of letters that are available are K, L, and M, then the total number of different computer lab’s code words, each exactly two letters long, that it is possible to make is?

Correct Answer: A (1)

Explanation:

  1. K cannot be the first letter, and L must appear more than once. Therefore, the only valid two-letter word is L-L.

Why are the other options incorrect?

  1. There is only one valid combination (L-L), so options like 3, 6, 9, and 12 are incorrect.

Question 3:

Which of the following is an acceptable computer lab’s code?

Correct Answer: E (M-L-L-O)

Explanation:

  1. M-L-L-O follows all the rules:
  2. M is not the last or second-to-last letter.
  3. L appears more than once.
  4. O is the last letter, but L appears, which is allowed.

Why are the other options incorrect?

  1. K-L-L-M: K cannot be the first letter (Rule 1).
  2. L-O-M-L: M cannot be the second-to-last letter (Rule 3).
  3. O-N-K-M: K cannot appear without N before it.
  4. N-M-K-O: M cannot be the second-to-last letter (Rule 3).

Question 4:

What are the total number of different computer lab’s code words exactly three identical letters long that it is possible to make?

Correct Answer: B (2)

Explanation:

  1. The only two possibilities are L-L-L and O-O-O, as these satisfy the rules.
  2. L-L-L is valid because L can appear multiple times.
  3. O-O-O is valid because O is allowed when it’s not the last letter.

Why are the other options incorrect?

  1. There are only two valid three-letter identical codes, not 1, 3, 4, or 5.

Question 5:

The computer lab’s code word M-M-L-L-O-K-N can be turned into another computer lab’s code word by carrying out any one of the following changes EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: E (Replacing the N with an O)

Explanation:

  1. Replacing N with O violates Rule 4 because N is required if K is in the word.

Why the other options are correct?

  1. Replacing L with N is fine because N can replace L.
  2. Replacing the first M with O is valid.
  3. Moving the second L next to K or moving O next to N still satisfies all the rules.

Question 6:

Which one of the following is not a computer lab’s code word but could be turned into one by changing the order of the letters within the word?

Correct Answer: D (N-K-L-M-L)

Explanation:

  1. By rearranging this to L-L-K-N-M, it satisfies all the rules.
  2. L appears twice.
  3. K is not the first letter.
  4. M is not in the last or second-to-last position.
  5. N is there because K appears in the word.

Why are the other options incorrect?

  1. K-L-M-N-O: K is the first letter, violating Rule 1.
  2. L-L-L-K-N: No change is needed, it’s already a valid code.
  3. M-K-N-O-N: K violates Rule 4 (it needs N before it).
  4. O-M-M-L-L: It’s already a valid code word.

Question 7:

Which of the following could be turned into a computer lab’s code word by replacing the “X” with the letter used in the computer lab’s code?

Correct Answer: E (X-O-K-L-L)

Explanation:

  1. Replacing X with N makes this a valid code word: N-O-K-L-L.
  2. L appears twice.
  3. O is not the last letter without L.
  4. K appears with N before it.

Why are the other options incorrect?

  1. M-K-X-N-O: No valid letter can replace X without violating a rule.
  2. M-X-K-M-N: No valid letter can replace X without violating a rule.
  3. X-M-M-K-O: M cannot be in the second-to-last position.
  4. X-M-O-L-K: K needs N to appear in the word if it is present.
Basic Arithmetic

Basic Arithmetic Operations with Examples

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Basic Arithmetic Operations with Examples

Addition (‘+’)

Definition: Combining two or more numbers into a single value. The order of numbers doesn’t matter (commutative).

Example: 4 + 3 = 7

Rules:

Addition of two positive integers results in a positive integer.

Addition of two negative integers results in a negative integer.

When adding a positive and a negative integer, subtract the values and use the sign of the larger integer.

Subtraction (‘-‘)

Definition: Finding the difference between two numbers. It is the inverse of addition and can be thought of as adding a negative number.

Example: 15 – 7 = 8 (can also be written as 15 + (-7) = 8)

Rules:

Subtraction of two positive integers results in a positive integer.

Subtraction of two negative integers results in a negative integer.

For integers with different signs, subtract the values and take the sign of the larger integer.

Multiplication (‘×’)

Definition: Repeated addition of the same number. It involves two values, the multiplier and multiplicand, producing a product.

Example: 2 × 3 = 6 (where 2 is the multiplier, 3 is the multiplicand, and 6 is the product)

Rules:

The product of two positive integers is positive.

The product of two negative integers is positive.

The product of a positive and a negative integer is negative.

Division (‘÷’)

Definition: The inverse of multiplication, dividing one number (dividend) by another (divisor) to obtain a quotient.

Example: 4 ÷ 2 = 2 (where 4 is the dividend, 2 is the divisor, and 2 is the quotient)

Rules:

Dividing two positive integers results in a positive integer.

Dividing two negative integers results in a positive integer.

Dividing integers with different signs results in a negative integer.

Inverse Operations

Addition and Subtraction: These are inverse operations. If 4 + 7 = 11, then subtracting 7 from 11 gives 4.

Example: 11 – 7 = 4

Multiplication and Division: These are also inverse operations. If 4 × 5 = 20, then dividing 20 by 5 gives 4.

Example: 20 ÷ 5 = 4

  1. Conclusion:

These basic arithmetic operations are the foundation of mathematical calculations and are easily understandable. The inverse relationships between addition-subtraction and multiplication-division show how these operations are interconnected.

Basic Arithmetic

What are Basic Arithmetic Operations

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Table of Contents: What is Arithmetic

  1. Basic Arithmetic Principles

  2. Basic Arithmetic Operations

  3. Factors and Multiples

  4. Even and Odd Numbers

  5. Order of Operations (PEMDAS)

  6. Integers

  7. Properties of Zero

  8. Properties of 1

What is Arithmetic?

Definition of Arithmetic

The following are some key points, which are phrased here to refresh your knowledge of basic Arithmetic principles.

Basic Arithmetic:

  • For any number x, exactly one of the following is true:
  1. x is negative
  2. x is zero
  3. x is positive
  • The only number that is equal to its opposite is 0 (e.g. x = – x only if x = 0
  • If 0 is multiplied to any other number, it will make it zero (x × 0 = 0)
  • Product or quotient of two numbers of the same sign are always positive and of a different sign are always negative. e.g. if a positive number is multiplied to a negative number the result will be negative and if a negative number is divided by another negative number the result will be positive.

See the following tables for Basic Arithmetic Operations.

Basic Arithmetic
  • The sum of two positive numbers is always positive.
  • The sum of two negative numbers is always negative.
  • Subtracting number from another is the same as adding its opposite x – y = x + (- y)
  • The reciprocal of a number x is 1/x
  • The product of a number and its reciprocal is always one ax ×1/a = 1
  • Dividing by a number is the same as multiplying by is reciprocal x ÷ y = x × 1/y
  • Every integer has a finite set of factors (divisors) and an infinite set of multipliers.

If x and y are two integers, the following four terms are synonyms.

  1. x is a divisor of y
  2. x is a factor of y
  3. y is a divisible by x
  4. y is a multiple of x

They all mean that when x is divided by y there is no remainder.

  • Positive integers, other than 1, have at least two positive factors.
  • Positive integers, other than 1, which have exactly two factors, are known as prime numbers.
  • Every integer greater than 1 that is not a prime can be written as a product of primes.
  • To find the prime factorization of an integer, find any two factors of that number, if both are primes, you are done; if not, continue factorization until each factor is a prime. e.g. to find the prime factorization of 24, two factors are 6 and 4. Both of them are not prime numbers, so continue to factor them.
  • Factors of 4 are 2 and 2(2 × 2)
  • Factors of 6 are 3 and 2(3 × 2)
  • So the number 24 can be written as 2 × 2 × 2 × 3
  • The Least Common Multiple (L.C.M) of two integers x and y is the smallest integer which is divisible by both x and y, e.g. the L.C.M of 15 and 25 is 75.
  • The Highest Common Factor (H.C.F) of two integers x and y is the largest integer which divides both x and y, e.g. the H.C.F of 15 and 25 is 5.
  • The product of HCF and LCM of two integers is equal to the products of numbers itself. e.g. 15 ×  25 = 375
  • 5 × 75 = 375 (where 5 is H.C.F and 75 is LCM of 15 and 25).
  • Even numbers are all the multiples of 2e .g.(….,-4,-2,0,2,4,……)
  • Odd numbers are all integers not divisible by 2 (…..,-5,-3,1, 1, 3, 5,…….)
  • If two integers are both even or both odd, their sum and difference are even.
  • If one integer is even and the other is odd, their sum and difference are odd.
  • The product of two integers is even unless both of them are odd.
What is the correct order of Math Operations?

Following formula is used to operate correctly the mathematical operations of addition, subtraction, division and multiplication.

PEMDAS

When an equation involves more than one operation, it is important to carry them out in the correct order. The correct order is Parentheses, Exponents, Multiplication and Division, Addition and Subtraction, or just the first letters PEMDAS to remember the proper order.

What are integers and their properties
Integers

The set of numbers which consists of whole numbers and negative numbers is known as integers. It is denoted by Z.

Z = {……..-4-3,-2,-1, 0, 1, 2,3,4,5……)

Positive Integers

The set Z ₊ = (1, 2, 3, 4 …) is the set of all positive integers. It is clear that positive integers and natural numbers are synonyms.

Negative Integers

The set Z₋ = (-1,-2,-3 …) is the set of all negative integers.

Remember: "0" is neither positive nor negative.
Even Numbers

Even numbers are all the multiple of 2 the set of even numbers is (……. 4, 2, 0, 2, 4……..)

Properties of Even Numbers
  1. If an even number is multiplied by any integer will yield an even number

Example: here 2 is even integer      2 × 5 = 10,      2 × 6 = 12           

  1. Two even numbers added together will yield an even number.

Example: 4 ₊ 6  = 10,      8 ₊ 6 = 14

  1. Zero would be considered an even number for practical purposes.

Odd Numbers:

The numbers which are not divisible by 2 are called Odd Numbers. The set of odd numbers is (-5-3-1, 1,3,7,9 …)

Properties of Odd Numbers
  1. If an odd number is multiplied by an odd number will yield an odd number.

Example 1:            5 × 5 = 25,          7 × 7 = 49

  1. Two odd numbers added together will yield an even number.

Example: 5 ₊ 3  = 8,         5 ₊ 7= 12

=

Is equal to

> 

Larger than

< 

Is less than

≥

Is greater than or equal to

≤

Is less than or equal to

Properties of Zero
  1. 0 is neither positive nor negative.
  2. 0 is smaller than every positive number.
  3. 0 is greater than every negative number.
  4. 0 is an even integer.
  5. For any integer a; a × 0 = 0
  6. For any integer a (including 0) a ÷ 0 = undefined.
  7. For any positive integer a; 0 ÷ a; 0/a = 0.
  8. For every integer a; a + 0 and a ₋ 0 = a.
  9. If the product of two or more numbers is 0, than at least one of them is 0.
Properties of 1
  1. For any number a: 1 x a = a and a/1 = a
  2. For any integer n: 1n = 1.
  3. 1 is a divisor of every integer.
  4. 1 is the smallest positive integer.
  5. 1 is an odd integer.
  6. 1 is not a prime.
Analytical Reasoning

GAT Analytical Reasoning Past Paper Questions

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NTS GAT Analytical Reasoning Questions are asked in GAT General and NAT tests. This questions is taken form GAT Analytical Reasoning Past Paper. GAT General Past Test Papers help students to make a clear idea about the type of Analytical Reasoning Questions.

Question No-4

NTS GAT Analytical Reasoning Past Paper Question

Seven officers, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, each are assigned to manage exactly one of four activities Accommodation, Operations, Administrations and Accounts. Managing assignments are made subject to the following conditions:

  1. Each activity is managed by one or two of the seven officers.
  2. B manages Administrations.
  3. Neither E nor F is an Operational manager.
  4. If C manages Accommodation, F and G manage Accounts.
  5. If D manages Operations or Accounts, A and G do not manage either Operations or Accounts.

Q. No-1: If C and E manage Accommodation, which one of the following must be true?

a. Operations have two managers.

b. G manages Administration.

c. A manages Administration or Accounts.

d. Administration has one manager.

e. D manages Administration.

Q. No-2: If G manages Administrations and A manages Operations, which one of the following must be true?

a. F manages Accommodation.

b. F manages Accounts.

c. E manages Accommodation.

d. C manages Operations. 

e. D manages Accommodation.

Q. No-3: If D manages Accounts, which one of the following cannot be true?

a. G manages Accommodation.

b. A manages Administration.

c. E manages Accommodation.

d. F manages Accounts.

e. C manages Accommodations.

Q. No-4: If A does not manage Accommodation and D manages Operations, which one of the following cannot be true?

a. C manages Operations.

b. E manages Accounts.

c. E manages Accommodation.

d. F manages Accommodation.

e. G manages Administrations.

Answer Key:

  1. E
  2. E
  3. E
  4. E
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Analytical Reasoning

NTS Analytical Reasoning Questions MCQs

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NTS Analytical Reasoning questions are asked in GAT, NAT and HAT test. This question is taken from the past paper of GAT, NAT and HAT test. Analytical reasoning MCQs questions consist of deductive and inductive critical and logical thinking skills. This is 5th question in our series of questions you can prepare all the analytical reasoning questions by solving them and we also provide solutions in video form. All the analytical reasoning questions have video solution links.

NTS Analytical Reasoning Past Paper Question MCQs

Question No-5

In a game, six various small balloons colored violet, pink, blue, green, yellow and orange are to be placed on six different small tables. There are six tables numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and one balloon is to be placed on one table.

  1. Violet cannot be placed immediately before or after the pink.
  2. Blue must be placed after the green.
  3. Orange cannot be on table 6.

Q. No-1: Which of the following balloon cannot be placed on table no -1?

a. Violet

b. Pink

c. Green

d. Blue

Q. No-2: If green is placed on table no-3 then blue must be placed on which table?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. 5

Q. No-3: If violet is placed on table no-5 which of the following balloons must be placed on table no-6?

a. Pink

b. Blue

c. Green

d. Yellow

Q. No-4: If orange is placed on table no-3, immediately before the green then which balloon must be placed on table no-5?

a. Violet

b. Pink

c. Blue

d. Yellow

Answer Key:

  1. D
  2. C
  3. D
  4. C
Watch Solution on YouTube
Explanation of Each Question

Question 1: Which of the following balloon cannot be placed on table no-1?

Correct Answer: D (Blue)

Justification:

  1. Blue must be placed after the green, meaning blue cannot be placed on table 1 because there is no table before 1 to put green. Therefore, Blue cannot be placed on table 1.
  2. Violet, pink, and green can be placed on table 1 without violating any rules.
  3. Hence, the correct answer is Blue (D).

Question 2: If green is placed on table no-3, then blue must be placed on which table?
Correct Answer: C (4)

Justification:

  1. Since blue must come after green, and green is placed on table 3, blue must be placed on a table after table 3. The first available table after table 3 is table 4.
  2. Therefore, blue must be placed on table 4.
  3. Hence, the correct answer is 4 (C).

Question 3: If violet is placed on table no-5, which of the following balloons must be placed on table no-6?
Correct Answer: D (Yellow)

Justification:

  1. Violet cannot be placed immediately before or after pink, so pink cannot be placed on table 6.
  2. Blue must come after green, so blue cannot be placed on table 6 unless green is on table 5, but in this case, violet is on table 5.
  3. Green could have been placed on table 4, but this still does not leave room for blue on table 6.
  4. Thus, the only option left for table 6 is yellow.
  5. Hence, the correct answer is Yellow (D).

Question 4: If orange is placed on table no-3, immediately before the green, then which balloon must be placed on table no-5?
Correct Answer: C (Blue)

Justification:

  1. If orange is placed on table 3 and green is placed immediately after on table 4, then blue must be placed after green. So, blue must be placed on table 5.
  2. Violet cannot be placed on table 5 since it doesn’t match the condition about the blue-green sequence.
  3. Pink and yellow are not restricted but based on the condition for blue, blue must be on table 5.
  4. Hence, the correct answer is Blue (C).
Analytical Reasoning

NTS Analytical Reasoning Sample Paper MCQs

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NTS GAT and NAT Past Paper Questions MCQs

NTS Analytical Reasoning Sample Paper MCQs Questions with Answers for NTS Test Preparation. This analytical reasoning question is taken form the past paper of gat and nat. The analytical reasoning section of the NTS test consists questions that involve critical thinking and writing skills. Each question or group of questions is based on a passage or set of conditions, and the candidate has to select the best answer choice.

Question No-6

In a school function six students J, K, L, M, N and O are sitting in front row of six seats. All six seats are numbered from 1 to 6. Only one person is sitting in one seat.

  1. J is sitting neither in seat 1 nor in seat 6.
  2. N is not sitting next to L.
  3. N is not sitting next to K.
  4. O is sitting to the immediate left of N.

Q. No-1: Which of the following seating arrangement, given in order from 1 to 6, is acceptable?

a. L-M-K-O-N-J

b. L-J-M-O-N-K

c. L-N-O-J-K-M

d. K-J-L-O-M-N

e. M-K-O-N-J-L

Q. No-2: All of the following seating arrangement, given in order from 1 to 6 are acceptable EXCEPT?

a. M-J-L-K-O-N

b. K-J-O-N-M-L

c. K-O-N-J-M-L

d. L-O-N-J-K-M

e. K-J-O-N-L-M

Q. No-3: If L is in seat 1 and K is in seat 5 then which of the following must be true?

a. J is in seat 2

b. M is in seat 3

c. N is in seat 4

d. O is in seat 4

e. M is in seat 6

Q. No-4: If M and O are in seats 2 and 3 respectively then which of the following must be true?

a. N is in seat 5

b. K is in seat 3

c. L is in seat 1

d. L is in seat 6

e. J is in seat 5

Q. No-5: If K and L are separated by exactly 3 seats then what is the maximum number of arrangements in which the six people could be seated?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

e. 5

Q. No-6: If K is in seat 2 then which of the following is a complete and accurate listing of the seats which “O” could occupy?

a. 1

b. 3

c. 3 and 4

d. 1, 3 and 4

e. 3, 4 and 5

Answer Key:

  1. E
  2. E
  3. E
  4. E
  5. B
  6. E
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Analytical Reasoning

Online Analytical Reasoning MCQs Tests

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Taking online analytical reasoning MCQS tests is one of the best ways to prepare for the analytical reasoning tests. One of the best ways to prepare for an analytical reasoning test is to take an online practice test. These online practice tests give the candidates a real exam experience as closely as possible. Students become familiar with the syllabus and test patterns. Moreover they develop the skills to solve analytical reasoning questions. These tests help the students to diagnose their strength and weaknesses in analytical reasoning type questions.

Question No-7

A teacher asked the class to draw a diagrams of four shapes namely, rectangle, Square, Circle and Triangle in a single class that has the following restrictions.

  1. Rectangle has priority over square.
  2. Circle has priority over triangle.
  3. If one shape has priority over another the shape with priority must be drawn earlier than the other.

Q. No-1: Each of the following is a possible sequence in which four shapes could be drawn EXCEPT:

a. C, R, T, S

b. R, S, C, T

c. R, C, S, T

d. C, S, R, T

Q. No-2: If each of the shapes takes equally long to draw. It must be true that:

a. R is drawn before T

b. S is drawn before C

c. C is drawn before S

d. C is drawn before T

Q. No-3: There would be exactly one order in which the four shapes would have to be drawn if it were determined that:

a. R has priority over C

b. T has priority over S

c. C has priority over S

d. T has priority over R

Answer Key:

  1. D
  2. D
  3. D
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Explanation of Each Question

Question-1: Which of the following sequences is NOT possible?

Option (A): C, R, T, S

  1. Circle is drawn before Triangle (C before T)
  2. Rectangle is drawn before Square (R before S)
    This sequence follows both priority rules, so it’s valid.

Option (B): R, S, C, T

  1. Rectangle is drawn before Square (R before S) 
  2. Circle is drawn before Triangle (C before T) 
    This sequence follows both priority rules, so it’s valid.

Option (C): R, C, S, T

  1. Rectangle is drawn before Square (R before S) 
  2. Circle is drawn before Triangle (C before T) 
    This sequence also follows the rules, so it’s valid.

Option (D): C, S, R, T

  1. Circle is drawn before Rectangle (C before R), which violates the rules because R should come before S.
  2. This sequence breaks the rule of rectangle having priority over square. Therefore, Option D is NOT a possible sequence.

Correct Answer: D

Question-2: If all shapes take the same time to draw, which of the following must be true?

Option (A): R is drawn before T

  1. The rules don’t specify any direct relationship between R and T. There is no requirement that Rectangle must be drawn before Triangle.
    This statement is NOT necessarily true.

Option (B): S is drawn before C

  1. There’s no rule that says Square must be drawn before Circle. In fact, Circle could be drawn before Square without breaking any rules.
    This statement is NOT necessarily true.

Option (C): C is drawn before S

  1. The rules don’t specify a direct priority between Circle and Square. The priority is only between R and S, and between C and T. Therefore, Circle does not have to be drawn before Square.
    This statement is NOT necessarily true.

Option (D): C is drawn before T

  1. This follows the given rule that Circle has priority over Triangle, so Circle must always be drawn before Triangle.
    This statement is TRUE.

Correct Answer: D

Question-3: Which statement would determine exactly one order for drawing the shapes?

Option (A): R has priority over C

  1. This introduces a new rule that Rectangle must be drawn before Circle, but there are still multiple possible orders for the other shapes. This does not determine exactly one order.
    This condition does NOT lead to a unique order.

Option (B): T has priority over S

  1. This introduces a new rule that Triangle must be drawn before Square, but again, this leaves multiple possible orders for the other shapes.
    This condition does NOT lead to a unique order.

Option (C): C has priority over S

  1. Adding the rule that Circle must be drawn before Square still leaves multiple valid sequences, so this condition does not create a unique order.
    This condition does NOT lead to a unique order.

Option (D): T has priority over R

  1. Now, we have the following priorities:
  2. Circle before Triangle (C before T)
  3. Rectangle before Square (R before S)
  4. Triangle before Rectangle (T before R)
    These conditions create a specific order: C must be drawn first, then T, followed by R, and finally S.
    This condition DOES lead to exactly one order.

Correct Answer: D

Analytical Reasoning

LSAT Analytical Reasoning Questions and Answers

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LSAT Analytical Reasoning questions require a critical approach to solve the riddle like questions. These questions test the analytical reasoning ability of the students to make logical conclusions. This portion is quite different from the other portions in the test. It requires a lot of practice and skill to solve the maze type questions.

Question No-8

LSAT Analytical Reasoning Question

Six cupboards, cupboard U, cupboard V, cupboard W, cupboard X, cupboard Y and cupboard Z are being placed in hotel rooms. Each of which can accommodated 2 cupboards and no more than two. Each cupboard must be placed in exactly one room and must be placed in that room either alone or else together with one other six cupboards. Enough rooms are available to permit any possible assignments of cupboards to rooms but the following restrictions must be observed.

  1. Cupboard V cannot be placed in a room with Cupboard W
  2. Cupboard W cannot be placed in a room with Cupboard X.
  3. Cupboard Y and Cupboard Z must be placed in a room together.

Q. No-1: Which of the following pairs of cupboards can be placed in one room together?

a. Cupboard U & Z

b. Cupboard W & X

c. Cupboard Y & V

d. Cupboard U & X

Q. No-2: If a cupboard is placed in a room alone, which of the following must be true?

a. Cupboard V is placed in room alone.

b. The cupboard occupies either 3 or 6 rooms.

c. None other than W is placed alone in a room.

d. The cupboard occupies either 4 or 5 rooms.

Q. No-3: If cupboards Y and Z are the only cupboards placed in a room, how many rooms are the minimum that can accommodate the cupboards?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

Answer Key:

  1. D
  2. D
  3. B
Watch Solution on YouTube
Explanation of Each Question

Question 1: “Which of the following pairs of cupboards can be placed in one room together?”

Answer Key: D. Cupboard U and X

Explanation:

We need to check each pair against the restrictions:

a. Cupboard U and Z:
This option violates the rule that Y and Z must be placed together, so U and Z cannot be in the same room without Y.

b. Cupboard W and X:
This is not allowed because the rule specifically states W cannot be placed with X.

c. Cupboard Y and V:
This pairing is possible, but it doesn’t have to happen. More importantly, it’s not the only possible correct pair.

d. Cupboard U and X:
There is no rule preventing U and X from being placed together in a room. Therefore, this pair is allowed. D is correct because no rules are violated.

Thus, D is the correct answer.

Question 2: “If a cupboard is placed in a room alone, which of the following must be true?”

Answer Key: D. The cupboard occupies either 4 or 5 rooms.

Explanation:

Let’s consider how many rooms are required based on the rules:

Y and Z must be placed together, which takes one room.

The other cupboards (U, V, W, and X) either have to be placed alone or with another cupboard, following the restrictions.

Now, check each option:

a. Cupboard V is placed in a room alone:
This is not necessarily true. V can be paired with other cupboards, as long as it’s not paired with W.

b. The cupboard occupies either 3 or 6 rooms:
This is incorrect because at least 4 rooms will be needed. The minimum number of rooms is 4.

c. None other than W is placed alone in a room:
This is incorrect because it’s possible for other cupboards to be placed alone as well.

d. The cupboard occupies either 4 or 5 rooms:
This is correct. In the best case, you could use 4 rooms: Y and Z together in one room, and the remaining cupboards (U, V, W, X) in the other three rooms, either alone or in pairs. In the worst case, 5 rooms might be needed if some cupboards must be placed alone due to restrictions.

Answer Key: B. 3 rooms

Explanation:

  1. Since Y and Z must be placed together, that takes up one room. The remaining cupboards (U, V, W, X) need to be placed in the remaining rooms, and we need to minimize the number of rooms while still following the restrictions.
  2. V and W cannot be placed together, so they need separate rooms.
  3. W and X cannot be placed together, so they also need separate rooms.

Let’s count:

  1. Y and Z in one room (1 room).
  2. V cannot be with W, so V must be in a separate room (2 rooms).
  3. W cannot be with X, so W and X must go in different rooms (3 rooms total).
  4. Thus, the minimum number of rooms is 3, making B the correct answer.